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Medical Tests American Academy of Professional Coders: Certified Professional Coder Sample Questions (Q85-Q90):

NEW QUESTION # 85
A physician documents a comprehensive electrophysiologic evaluation with an unsuccessful attempted induction of arrhythmi a. Upon review, the bundle-of-His recording is missing. What code(s) should be reported?

A. 93610, 93602, 93612, 93603, 93618
B. 93619-52
C. 0
D. 93620-52

Answer: A

Explanation:
To bill a comprehensive electrophysiologic evaluation (93619-93622), the following five components must be documented: right atrial pacing (93610), right atrial recording (93602), right ventricular pacing (93612), right ventricular recording (93603), and bundle-of-His recording (93600). If the documentation does not support all five components, each study must be reported separately, as opposed to billing the procedure with a "reduced services" modifier. The exception to this rule would be if an add-on procedure were performed and required to be reported in addition to the comprehensive electrophysiologic evaluation. In this case, however, the attempted induction arrhythmia (93618) is not an add-on code and can be reported in addition to the primary procedures.

NEW QUESTION # 86
Which patient is receiving critical care services?

A. A 67 -year-old female receives chronic ventilator therapy after a cerebral infarction thatcaused hemorrhage in the brain.
B. A 93 -year-old male is admitted to the intensive care unit for monitoring after a coronaryangioplasty procedure that was performed to relieve symptoms of atherosclerosis.
C. A 60-year-old male is admitted with an acute chronic heart failure exacerbation causinghypoxic respiratory failure. The patient is intubated, sedated, and started on 50 mg ofertapenem for a potential lung infection.
D. A 47 -year-old female with a history of unrepaired chronic heart disease and anemia has anoxygen saturation level of 80. She is put on a nasal cannula and given a blood transfusion toimprove her oxygen-carrying capacity and oxygen saturation level.

Answer: C

Explanation:
CPT guidelines define critical care as an illness or injury that acutely impairs one or more vital organ systems, where there is a high probability of imminent or life-threatening deterioration in the patients condition. Additionally, to report a critical care service, the documentation should provide evidence of high-complexity medical decision-making (e.gendotracheal tube insertion, defibrillation, fluid administration for shock, Narcan, etc.). Answer B is the only option listed that contains documentation to support critical care services.
This male patient has Vyvo life-threatening conditions, in which emergent intervention is provided to prevent further deterioration. In ansvver A the female patient may have a life-threatening condition: however, administering oxygen via a nasal cannula and/or transfusing blood does not qualify as critical care. Management of a patient who receives chronic ventilator therapy is also not considered critical care because the medical decision-making involved in the therapy is quite low.
The care a patient receives after having surgery would be considered routine and postoperative, regardless of where they are sent, unless a complication arises in which one or more of the vital organ systems begins to deteriorate in a fashion that poses a threat to life.

NEW QUESTION # 87
What is/are the code(s) for the repair of an incarcerated hernia in the inner groin requiring mesh placement on a 32-year-old female patient?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
There are several different types ofhernias that are categorized by their location. A hernia located in the inner groin is inguinal, and a hernia located on the outer groin is femoral. The repair of an incarcerated inguinal hernia on a 32 -year-old patient is coded to CPT 49507. Hernia mesh is used to reduce the risk of recurrence, and implantation of it is inclusive to an inguinal, umbilical, femoral, and laparoscopic hernia repair.

NEW QUESTION # 88
The laboratory collected blood to test the patient's carbon dioxide, chloride, potassium, sodium, and glucose levels. Select the CPT codes that the laboratory will report.

A. 80051, 80053
B. 80051, 82947-59
C. 80051, 82947
D. 80053-52

Answer: C

Explanation:
It would not be appropriate to add modifier 52 to 80053 in answer A In answer C, 80051 and
80053 would not be reported together because CPT guidelines state that "when or more panel codes include the same tests, report the panel with the highest number of tests in common." Because the glucose test is not included in 80051, 82947 would be added to 80051, with no modifier 59, because the procedures are routinely billed together, thus eliminating answer D.

NEW QUESTION # 89
Anesthesiologist A begins providing services at 7:02 but is relieved at 8:47 by Anesthesiologist Z. If the recorded end time for anesthesia services is 11:32, which statement is be true?

A. Anesthesiologist Z would report 4.5 hours of anesthesia time.
B. Anesthesiologist A would report 4.5 hours of anesthesia time.
C. Both anesthesiologists would separately report 4.5 hours of anesthesia time.
D. Anesthesiologist A would report 1.75 hours, and Anesthesiologist Z would report 2.75 hours of anesthesia time.

Answer: A

Explanation:
When splitting/providing relief in the middle of a procedure, the anesthesiologist who provides services for the longest amount of time bills for the anesthesia services in their entirety. In this scenario, Anesthesiologist Z provided 60 minutes more than Anesthesiologist A and so would bill for the entire 4.5 hours. Even though Anesthesiologist A provided 1.75 hours, they would not submit any coding to the insurance carrier.

NEW QUESTION # 90
......

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New AAPC-CPC Exam Price | Exam AAPC-CPC Dumps

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Medical Tests American Academy of Professional Coders: Certified Professional Coder Sample Questions (Q85-Q90):

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