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EC-COUNCIL EC-Council Certified Cloud Security Engineer (CCSE) Sample Questions (Q18-Q23):
NEW QUESTION # 18
GlobalCloud is a cloud service provider that offers various cloud-based secure and cost-effective services to cloud consumers. The customer base of this organization increased within a short period; thus, external auditing was performed on GlobalCloud. The auditor used spreadsheets, databases, and data analyzing software to analyze a large volume of data. Based on the given information, which cloud-based audit method was used by the auditor to collect the objective evidence?
- A. Re-Performance
- B. Gap Analysis
- C. CAAT
- D. Striping
Answer: C
Explanation:
Computer-Assisted Audit Techniques (CAATs) are tools and methods used by auditors to analyze large volumes of data efficiently and effectively. The use of spreadsheets, databases, and data analyzing software to scrutinize a large volume of data and collect objective evidence is indicative of CAATs.
Here's how CAATs operate in this context:
* Data Analysis: CAATs enable auditors to handle and analyze large datasets that would be impractical to assess manually.
* Efficiency: These techniques improve audit efficiency by automating certain parts of the audit process.
* Effectiveness: CAATs enhance the effectiveness of audits by allowing auditors to identify trends, anomalies, and patterns in the data.
* Software Utilization: The use of specialized audit software is a hallmark of CAATs, enabling auditors to perform complex analyses.
* Objective Evidence: CAATs help in collecting objective evidence by providing a transparent and
* systematic approach to data analysis.
References:
* An article defining CAATs and discussing their advantages and disadvantages1.
* A resource explaining the role and benefits of CAATs in auditing information systems2.
* A publication detailing how CAATs allow auditors to independently access and test the reliability of client systems3.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Scott Herman works as a cloud security engineer in an IT company. His organization has deployed a 3-tier web application in the same Google Cloud Virtual Private Cloud. Each tier (web interface (UI), API, and database) is scaled independently of others. Scott Herman obtained a requirement that the network traffic should always access the database using the API and any request coming directly from the web interface to the database should not be allowed. How should Scott configure the network with minimal steps?
- A. By adding tags to each tier and setting up firewall rules to allow the desired traffic flow
- B. By setting up software-based firewalls on individual VMs
- C. By adding tags to each tier and setting up routes to allow the desired traffic flow
- D. By adding each tier to a different subnetwork
Answer: A
Explanation:
In Google Cloud Virtual Private Cloud (VPC), network tags are used to apply firewall rules to specific instances. Scott can use these tags to control the traffic flow between the tiers of the web application. Here's how he can configure the network:
Assign Network Tags: Assign unique network tags to the instances in each tier - for example, 'ui-tag' for the web interface, 'api-tag' for the API, and 'db-tag' for the database.
Create Firewall Rules: Create firewall rules that allow traffic from the API tier to the database tier by specifying the 'api-tag' as the source filter and 'db-tag' as the target filter.
Restrict Direct Access: Ensure that there are no rules allowing direct traffic from the 'ui-tag' to the 'db-tag', effectively blocking any direct requests from the web interface to the database.
Apply Rules: Apply the firewall rules to the respective instances based on their tags.
By using network tags and firewall rules, Scott can ensure that the database is only accessible via the API, and direct access from the UI is not permitted.
Reference:
Google Cloud documentation on setting up firewall rules and using network tags1.
NEW QUESTION # 20
The GCP environment of a company named Magnitude IT Solutions encountered a security incident. To respond to the incident, the Google Data Incident Response Team was divided based on the different aspects of the incident. Which member of the team has an authoritative knowledge of incidents and can be involved in different domains such as security, legal, product, and digital forensics?
- A. Communications Lead
- B. Subject Matter Experts
- C. Operations Lead
- D. Incident Commander
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the context of a security incident within the GCP environment of Magnitude IT Solutions, the Google Data Incident Response Team would be organized to address various aspects of the incident effectively. Among the team, the role with the authoritative knowledge of incidents and involvement in different domains such as security, legal, product, and digital forensics is the Incident Commander. Here's why:
Authority and Responsibility: The Incident Commander (IC) is typically responsible for the overall management of the incident response. This includes making critical decisions, coordinating the efforts of the entire response team, and ensuring that all aspects of the incident are addressed.
Cross-Functional Involvement: The IC has the expertise and authority to interact with various domains such as security (to understand and mitigate threats), legal (to ensure compliance and manage legal risks), product (to understand the impact on services), and digital forensics (to guide the investigation and evidence collection).
Leadership and Coordination: The IC leads the response effort, ensuring that all team members, including Subject Matter Experts (SMEs), Operations Leads, and Communications Leads, are working in sync and that the incident response plan is effectively executed.
Communication: The IC is the primary point of contact for internal and external stakeholders, ensuring clear and consistent communication about the status and actions being taken in response to the incident.
In summary, the Incident Commander is the central figure with the authoritative knowledge and cross-functional involvement necessary to manage a security incident comprehensively.
Reference:
NIST SP 800-61 Revision 2: Computer Security Incident Handling Guide
Google Cloud Platform Incident Response and Management Guidelines
Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Incident Response Framework
NEW QUESTION # 21
The organization TechWorld Ltd. used cloud for its business. It operates from an EU country (Poland and Greece). Currently, the organization gathers and processes the data of only EU users. Once, the organization experienced a severe security breach, resulting in loss of critical user dat a. In such a case, along with its cloud service provider, the organization should be held responsible for non-compliance or breaches. Under which cloud compliance framework will the company and cloud provider be penalized?
- A. ITAR
- B. GDPR
- C. NIST
- D. HIPAA
Answer: A
Explanation:
GDPR: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is the primary law regulating how companies protect EU citizens' personal data1.
Applicability: GDPR applies to all organizations operating within the EU, as well as organizations outside of the EU that offer goods or services to customers or businesses in the EU1.
Data Breaches: In the event of a data breach, organizations are required to notify the appropriate data protection authority within 72 hours, if feasible, after becoming aware of the breach2.
Penalties: Organizations that do not comply with GDPR can face hefty fines. For serious infringements, GDPR states that companies can be fined up to 4% of their annual global turnover or €20 million (whichever is greater)1.
Responsibility: Both the data controller and the processor will be held responsible for not adhering to the GDPR rules, which includes security breaches resulting in the loss of user data1.
Reference:
GDPR Info on fines and penalties1.
EDPB Guidelines on personal data breach notification under GDPR2.
NEW QUESTION # 22
Rufus Sewell, a cloud security engineer with 5 years of experience, recently joined an MNC as a senior cloud security engineer. Owing to the cost-effective security features and storage services provided by AWS, his organization has been using AWS cloud-based services since 2014. To create a RAID, Rufus created an Amazon EBS volume for the array and attached the EBS volume to the instance where he wants to host the array. Using the command line, Rufus successfully created a RAID. The array exhibits noteworthy performance both in read and write operations with no overhead by parity control and the entire storage capacity of the array is used.
The storage capacity of the RAID created by Rufus is equal to the sum of disk capacity in the set, but the array is not fault tolerant. It is ideal for non-critical cloud data storage that must be read/written at a high speed.
Based on the given information, which of the following RAID is created by Rufus?
- A. RAID 0
- B. RAID 5
- C. RAID 1
- D. RAID 6
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rufus has created a RAID 0 array, which is characterized by the following features:
* Performance: RAID 0 is known for its high performance in both read and write operations because it uses striping, where data is split evenly across two or more disks without parity information.
* No Overhead by Parity Control: RAID 0 does not use parity control, which means there is no redundancy in the data. This contributes to its high performance but also means there is no fault tolerance.
* Storage Capacity: The total storage capacity of a RAID 0 array is equal to the sum of all the disk capacities in the set, as there is no disk space used for redundancy.
* Lack of Fault Tolerance: RAID 0 is not fault-tolerant; if one disk fails, all data in the array is lost.
Therefore, it is not recommended for critical data storage.
* Use Case: It is ideal for non-critical data that requires high-speed reading and writing, such as temporary files or cache data.
References:RAID 0 is often used to improve the performance of disk I/O (input/output) and is suitable for environments where speed is more critical than data redundancy. However, due to its lack of fault tolerance, it is not recommended for storing critical data that cannot be easily replaced or recovered.
NEW QUESTION # 23
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