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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 Sample Questions (Q25-Q30):
NEW QUESTION # 25
A network administrator must ensure that a printer will still be assigned a specific IP address even if all addresses are depleted. Which of the following network configuration concepts is this describing?
- A. Lease
- B. Exclusion
- C. Reservation
- D. VLAN
Answer: C
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A DHCP reservation binds a specific MAC address to an IP address so the device always receives the same IP from the DHCP server. This ensures network devices like printers maintain consistent connectivity and availability even when the IP pool is low.
#Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter - Chapter 18, page 1252.
NEW QUESTION # 26
When installing a network printer, a technician needs to ensure the printer is available after a network is restarted. Which of the following should the technician set up on the printer to meet this requirement?
- A. Private address
- B. Wi-Fi on the printer
- C. Dynamic addressing
- D. Static IP address
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
Assigning astatic IP addressto a network printer ensures it always retains the same address, allowing users and print servers to consistently reach it even after a reboot or network refresh.
* Option B (Private address):Refers to address ranges (e.g., 192.168.x.x) - doesn't guarantee address persistence.
* Option C (Wi-Fi):Is a connection method, not a method of IP assignment.
* Option D (Dynamic addressing):Via DHCP, which can change over time unless reservations are made (less reliable).
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following port numbers are associated with email traffic? (Select two).
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
To answer this question, we need to identify the port numbers associated with email protocols used in client- server communication.
Port 25 (SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):
This port is primarily used for sending emails between mail servers and from mail clients to mail servers (sending outbound mail).
SMTP is an essential protocol for email traffic.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 2.5 - Explain basic wired and wireless networking concepts, including ports and protocols.
Port 110 (POP3 - Post Office Protocol v3):
POP3 is used for retrieving emails from a mail server. It is commonly used for downloading email messages to a local client, after which the messages are deleted from the server.
While not as commonly used today (due to IMAP being preferred), POP3 is still a recognized email protocol, and its association with port 110 makes it a valid answer.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1201), Domain 2.5 - Explain basic wired and wireless networking concepts, including ports and protocols.
Incorrect Options:
A: Port 23: This is the Telnet protocol used for remote terminal access. It is not related to email traffic.
C: Port 67: This port is associated with the DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server-to-client communications. It is unrelated to email.
E: Port 137: This port is part of NetBIOS, used for name resolution in legacy Windows environments. It is not relevant to email traffic.
F: Port 443: This port is used for HTTPS (secure web traffic) and is unrelated to email protocols.
Key Takeaway:The two correct port numbers associated with email traffic are B. 25 (SMTP) for sending emails and D. 110 (POP3) for retrieving emails.
NEW QUESTION # 28
While reviewing options in the BIOS/UEFI settings page to fix a laptop issue, a support technician notices an option to clear existing TPM keys. Which of the following would most likely happen if the TPM is cleared?
- A. Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.
- B. The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform
- C. The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.
- D. All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware-based security feature used to store cryptographic keys, such as those used for encryption, authentication, or device identification. It plays a critical role in ensuring secure operations for encrypted drives, BitLocker, and secure boot processes. Clearing TPM keys involves wiping all stored cryptographic data, which can lead to several consequences depending on what the TPM was being used for. Let's break it down:
A:Encrypted hard drives would probably not be accessible.
Encrypted hard drives, such as those secured with BitLocker encryption, rely on the cryptographic keys stored in the TPM to unlock data.
Clearing the TPM will erase these keys, making it impossible for the encrypted drive to decrypt its contents unless a recovery key (separate from the TPM) is available. Without this recovery key, the data will likely become inaccessible.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference: This falls under Objective 3.5, which covers understanding BIOS/UEFI configurations, TPM functions, and securing devices.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:
B:All security certificates would need to be reinstalled from trusted roots.
Clearing the TPM does not erase security certificates stored in the operating system or other areas.
Certificates are generally managed by the OS or specific applications, not the TPM.Clearing the TPM only affects cryptographic keys and data stored in the TPM chip, so this is incorrect.
C:The device would need to be reenrolled in the MDM platform.
Mobile Device Management (MDM) enrollment typically does not rely on the TPM. While certain enterprise security configurations may involve the TPM, clearing it does not inherently trigger MDM reenrollment unless specifically tied to the MDM configuration.
D:The laptop would need to be registered to the domain as a new client.
While domain registrations may sometimes use TPM for authentication or secure operations, clearing the TPM alone does not require re-registering the device to the domain. The domain registration and authentication process rely more on system-level credentials than the TPM itself.
Practical Example:
A user enables BitLocker on their laptop, which relies on the TPM to store the encryption key. Later, if they clear the TPM via BIOS/UEFI without saving the BitLocker recovery key separately, they will not be able to unlock the hard drive, leading to data loss unless the recovery key is available. This is a common issue when technicians or users inadvertently clear the TPM without understanding its role in encryption.
CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:
Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, install and configure laptop hardware and components, including UEFI/BIOS security settings (TPM, secure boot, etc.).
This question tests understanding of TPM functionality, encryption technologies, and secure device configurations.
NEW QUESTION # 29
A technician is working on a RAID 1 array that is apparently degraded. The technician verifies the RAM and power are both operating as expected. Which of the following can the technician do to further isolate the issue?
- A. Reconfigure the array as RAID 0.
- B. Run the chkdsk /i command.
- C. Rebuild the RAID array.
- D. Perform individual drive diagnostics.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Adegraded RAID 1array usually meansone of the drives has failed or is failing. The correctnext step is torun diagnostics on each driveto identify the faulty one. RAID 1 uses mirroring, so one good drive should still contain all the data.
Option B:chkdsk checks file system integrity, not hardware drive health.
Option C:Rebuilding should only occurafteridentifying and replacing a faulty drive.
Option D:RAID 0 offers no redundancy and would destroy data in this context.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to storage devices.
NEW QUESTION # 30
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