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Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

Topic	Details
Topic 1	AI and Automation: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Operations Managers and addresses the use of AI and automation in delivering IT systems and applications that align with user needs. It ensures that software releases meet quality standards, are delivered on time, and stay within budget, using modern tools and intelligent technologies.
Topic 2	Service Design: This section of the exam measures the skills of IT Release Managers and covers the principles and practices involved in designing services and products that are practical, useful, and aligned with stakeholder expectations. It focuses on ensuring that services are designed in a way that they can be effectively delivered and supported by the organization and its partners.
Topic 3	Change: This section of the exam measures the skills of DevOps Engineers and focuses on how to manage and control changes within IT environments. It includes planning, executing, monitoring, and communicating changes to ensure minimal disruption while keeping stakeholders informed about the progress and impact of changes.

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Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q19-Q24):

NEW QUESTION # 19
A large organization is adjusting its IT organizational structure to optimize for faster, more collaborative, and less bureaucratic working practices. There is a significant number of changes and related releases that are handled by the product and project teams. What is the BEST way for the organization to position release management in the new organizational structure?

A. Appoint a release manager in every product team to coordinate and coach the team members
B. Establish a centralized release management team to manage all releases
C. Delegate all release management responsibilities to product and project teams
D. Delegate most release management responsibilities to product and project teams but appoint a release manager to coordinate and coach the teams

Answer: D

Explanation:
In a collaborative, less bureaucratic structure, release management needs to balance decentralization with oversight to ensure consistency and alignment. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument advises:"In organizations adopting collaborative practices, release management responsibilities can be delegated to product and project teams to enable faster decision-making, but a release manager should be appointed to coordinate and coach the teams, ensuring consistency and adherence to standards"(Section
3.3.2).
* Option A (Centralized team) contradicts the goal of reducing bureaucracy and enabling faster, collaborative practices.
* Option B (Delegate all responsibilities) risks inconsistency and lack of oversight, which can lead to uncoordinated releases.
* Option C (Delegate most responsibilities but appoint a release manager to coordinate and coach) balances decentralization with oversight, aligning with the goal of faster, collaborative practices while maintaining consistency.
* Option D (Appoint a release manager in every team) is overly resource-intensive and may lead to fragmented approaches across teams.
The correct answer is C, as it best supports the new organizational structure while ensuring effective release management.

NEW QUESTION # 20
What automation tools should be used to help a release manager understand how the organization's services are related to one another?

A. Analysis and reporting tools
B. Enterprise architecture tools
C. Monitoring and event management tools
D. Work planning and prioritization tools

Answer: B

Explanation:
Understanding service relationships is critical for effective release management, especially to assess the impact of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Enterprise architecture tools help release managers understand the relationships between services, applications, and infrastructure, enabling better impact analysis and dependency mapping for releases"(Section 4.2).
* Option A (Analysis and reporting tools) focuses on performance metrics, not service relationships.
* Option B (Work planning and prioritization tools) aids in scheduling, not understanding service dependencies.
* Option C (Monitoring and event management tools) is used for real-time performancetracking, not structural relationships.
* Option D (Enterprise architecture tools) is the correct choice, as these tools map out service relationships and dependencies, helping the release manager plan releases effectively.
The correct answer is D, as enterprise architecture tools are designed for this purpose.

NEW QUESTION # 21
What is MOST LIKELY to affect how significantly an organization's release management activities are dependent on partners and suppliers?

A. The knowledge level of the organization's users
B. The source of the organization's products and technology solutions
C. The maturity of the release management practice
D. The amount of automation in the release management practice

Answer: B

Explanation:
The dependency on partners and suppliers in release management is influenced by the extent to which an organization relies on external products or services. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management document explains:"The source of the organization's products and technology solutions significantly affects the dependency on partners and suppliers, as reliance on externalsoftware, hardware, or services increases the need for coordination during releases"(Section 3.4).
* Option A (The knowledge level of users) impacts user adoption but not the dependency on suppliers for release activities.
* Option B (The maturity of the practice) affects internal efficiency, not the structural dependency on external parties.
* Option C (The amount of automation) influences how releases are executed but doesn't determine the dependency on suppliers.
* Option D (The source of products and technology solutions) directly determines how much the organization relies on external parties, affecting release management dependency.
The correct answer is D, as the source of technology solutions most significantly impacts supplier dependency.

NEW QUESTION # 22
Which is a key input to the release planning and coordination process?

A. Updates to the continual improvement register
B. Documented findings on the success of a release
C. Notifications to stakeholders about the release status
D. Details about the users who will be affected

Answer: D

Explanation:
The release planning and coordination process in ITIL 4 Release Management requires inputs toensure effective planning and execution of releases. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument specifies:"Key inputs to release planning and coordination include details about the users who will be affected, as this helps in scheduling and communicating the release to minimize disruption"(Section 3.2.1).
* Option A (Documented findings on the success of a release) is an output of a release evaluation, not an input to planning.
* Option B (Updates to the continual improvement register) may inform long-term improvements but isn' t a direct input to planning a specific release.
* Option C (Details about the users who will be affected) is a critical input, as understanding the user base helps tailor the release schedule, communication, and impact mitigation strategies.
* Option D (Notifications to stakeholders about the release status) is an output of the release process, not an input to planning.
The correct answer is C, as user details are essential for effective release planning and coordination.

NEW QUESTION # 23
An organization has a dedicated release management team that is effective in managing releases, but this team has very poor coordination with the change enablement team. What capability level of release management does this indicate?

A. Level 4
B. Level 1
C. Level 2
D. Level 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
The ITIL capability model evaluates not only the effectiveness of a practice but also its integrationwith other practices. TheITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Managementdocument states:"Level 2 (Managed) indicates that the practice is effective in its own scope but may lack integration with other practices. Level 3 (Defined) requires standardized processes and effective coordination with related practices like change enablement" (Section 5.2).
* The scenario shows that the release management team is effective (meeting Level 2), but poor coordination with the change enablement team indicates a lack of integration.
* Level 1 (Ad-hoc) would mean no consistent process, which isn't the case here since the team is effective.
* Level 3 requires integration and standardization across practices, which is not met due to poor coordination.
* Level 4 is even more advanced, requiring quantitative management, which isn't applicable.
The capability level is B (Level 2), as the practice is effective but lacks the integration needed for Level
3.

NEW QUESTION # 24
......

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2025 High Hit-Rate Detail ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Explanation | 100% Free ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Latest Dumps Pdf

Peoplecert ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Exam Syllabus Topics:

ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Latest Dumps Pdf | Latest ITIL-4-Practitioner-Release-Management Test Objectives

Peoplecert ITIL 4 Practitioner: Release Management Exam Sample Questions (Q19-Q24):

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